Means for example: you start your Laptop at any Hotel and you get a IP like xxx.xxx.xxx.x , then you start a VPN tunnel to your home network and your home router has 192.168.1.1 then you get for your notebook also a 192.168.1.xx address.
I am referring to the address the remote router assigns to the remoting client. Sounds like it should work but I would double check that. I have OpenVPN on my Linksys 1900ACS rouiter. Unfortunately, it does not assign the same I/P address as those on the NET. However, Softether does and works very well. If you get the problem resolved I hope you will post what the solution was.
Just a guess as to what might be occurring, as it's common when setting up L2TP VPN connections on Windows. Google "windows vpn default gateway" for details to see if that's the issue.
How does a VPN service change the gateway address? I was always under the assumption the gateway address was controlled by the router. I am not arguing, I just find your statement very interesting. I don't think I have ever seen a situation where my gateway address was not 192.168.1.1.
I agree. It is one of the subjects where the authors, etal, try to impress rather than express. It can't be that hard, but the subject is inundated with abbreviations, acronyms, techie dazzlement, etc. Unfortunately to understand it, you have to work in the profession, or try to find a good course to build up your knowledge slowly.